Tiếng Anh 12

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Đề số 63 - Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia môn Tiếng Anh

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Đáp án và lời giải chi tiết Đề số 63 - Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia môn Tiếng Anh

Đề bài

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest.

Question 1.

A. opposite                     B. technology

C. economic                   D. appropriate

Question 2.

A. stopped                     B. watched 

C. decided                     D. cooked

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.

Question 3.

A. polite                       B. system

C. progress                   D. children

Question 4.

A. prepare                     B. divide

C. attract                      D. differ

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 5. Food prices have raised (A) so rapidly (B) in the past few months that (C) some families have been forced to alter their eating habits (D).

Question 6. Below are (A) some pieces of advice that can help you reduce (B) the feeling of pressure and creating (C)  a good impression on (D) your interviewer.

Question 7. A number (A) of large insurance companies has (B) their headquarters (C)  in the capital city (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 8. Environmental               is a big problem in large cities nowadays.

A. pollution                 B. dust

C. dirty                       D. research

Question 9. She was tired and couldn’t keep          the group.

A. on to                       B. up against

C. up with                    D. out of

Question 10. The more you study,          .

A. the more knowledge you gain 

B. the more knowledge do you gain

C. you are the more knowledge  

D. you will gain more knowledge

Question 11. We’d better       _ really early. It’s a very long journey.

A. set down                B. set off 

C. set up                    D. set on

Question 12. He’d prefer       _ chicken soup rather than                milk.

A. to have – drink       B. had – drank

C. having – having      D. have – drink

Question 13. – “Who wrote the poem?” – “It’s said          written by one of the Bronte sisters.”

A. to have been           B. to being

C. to having been        D. to be

Question 14. You’re very fat. You should go on a(n)    _.

A. jogging                   B. exercise 

C. diet                        D. swimming

Question 15. We have plenty of time for doing the work. We          be hurried.

A. needn’t                   B. shouldn’t

C. mustn’t                   D. may not

Question 16. He has got a bulldog quality. He always insists   solving each problem completely.

A. for                           B. at

C. on                           D. in

Question 17. The           of the radio by Marconi played an important part in the development of communication.

A. invention                B. discovery 

C. development          D. research

Question 18. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep    _ with rapidly changing technology.

A. fast                         B. time

C. speed                      D. pace

Question 19. Do you know the beautiful girl      is sitting in the car?

A. who                        B. whom

C. which                     D. whose

Mark the letter A, B, C or D n your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. - Dylan: “I’m thinking of doing some shopping today. Can you recommend anywhere?”

        - Steward: “                       

A. That’s OK. In that case, how about going to the Roman ruins down by the lake?

B. Well, you should try the local museum. That’s quite close to here.

C. To be honest, I’m not really a big fan of department stores.

D. Well, you could try Oxford Street. There are lots of big department stores there.

Question 21. - John: “You have a good voice! You sang so beautifully!”

      - Linda: “                 

A. Don’t joke me.

B. Your compliment isn’t correct.

C. Your compliment is encouraging.

D. Better than you are thinking.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question.

Question 22. When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his attention is appropriate.

A. looking up to

B. catching sight of 

C. pointing at

D. coming nearer to

Question 23. John, could you look after my handbag while I go out for a minute.

A. take over                      B. take care of

C. take part in                   D. take place

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question.

Question 24. Remember not to show your nervousness during a job interview.

A. confidence                    B. anxiety

C. challenge                      D. creativeness

Question 25. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. lost control of            B. put in charge of

C. made room for          D. got in touch with

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. He started studying physics five years ago.

A. He has not studied physics for five years.

B. He has studied physics for five years.

C. It was five years ago did he start studying physics.

D. It is five years since he has studied physics.

Question 27. The president was reported to have had a heart attack.

A. The president was reported to suffer a heart attack.

B. People say that the president had suffered a heart attack.

C. It was reported that the president had suffered a heart attack.

D. People reported the president to suffer a heart attack.

Question 28. My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.

A. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.

B. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.

C. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.

D. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. He had just finished eating his breakfast. Then he fell down.

A. Hardly did he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.

B. Hardly he had finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.

C. Hardly had he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.

D. Hardly have he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.

Question 30. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

B. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me the most.

C. I was almost surprised by his strange behavior.

D. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

We can communicate not only through words (31)                            through body language. Body language

includes our posture, facial expressions, and gestures. Because body language is so important, you’ll want (32)                              what yours is saying and how to interpret other people’s, too. Here are some examples of body language and its meaning. If your posture is slumped and your head is down, this could mean that you are sad or you lack (33)    . If your posture is straight but relaxed, you are expressing confidence and friendliness. A smile is a sign of friendliness and interest. But people sometimes smile just to be polite.

Friendliness and interest are expressed when a person’s eyes meet yours and then look away and meet yours again. A person (34)                         doesn’t look away is expressing a challenge. Hand gestures can mean a person is (35)         in the conversation.

Question 31. 

 A. but also                   B. and also

C. but so                      D. and so

Question 32.

A. know                        B. knowing 

C. to knowing                D. to know

Question 33.

A. confidence               B. confide  

C. confiding                 D. confident

Question 34.

A. whom                       B. who  

C. whose                      D. which

Question 35.

A. interest                     B. interested

C. interestingly             D. interesting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer from a distant site and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published "The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few years ago.

Why hasn't telecommuting become more popular?

Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's responsibilities.

It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.

Question 36. How many American workers are involved in telecommuting?

A. More than 8 million

B. More than predicted in Business Week

C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today

D. Fewer than last year

Question 37. The phrase “of no consequence” means                .

A. of no use                            B. of no good

C. unimportant                        D. irrelevant

Question 38. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuters EXCEPT___            .

A. the lack of interaction with a group

B. the different system of supervision

C. the fact that the work space is in the home

D. the opportunities for advancement

Question 39. The word “them” in line 11 refers to        _.

A. systems

B. telecommuters

C. executives

D. responsibilities

Question 40. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees                

A. need regular interaction with their families.

B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.

C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.

D. are ignorant of telecommuting.

Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is         .

A. a telecommuter               B. the manager

C. a statistician                    D. a reporter

Question 42. When Business Week published “The Portable Executive”, it implied that                    .

A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.

B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.

C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.

D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

Question 43. The author mentions “several representative handfuls” in the passage in order to show       .

A. how small soil particles are

B. the requirements for an adequate soil farm

C. the process by which soil is weighed

D. the range of soil samples

Question 44. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect      .

A. the results of squeezing the soil

B. the way the soil is extracted

C. the need to check more than one handful

D. the difficulty of forming different shapes

Question 45. The word “dampened” in the passage is closest in meaning to     .

A. examined                            B. stretched

C. moistened                           D. damaged

Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it          .

A. may not hold its shape when molded 

B. does not have a classifiable texture

C. is not very heavy

D. does not have a durable shape

Question 47. The word “they” in the passage refers to _.

A. categories                   B. sieves  

C. clay particles               D. larger particles

Question 48. The word “fine” in the passage is closest in meaning to    .

A. various                        B. tiny

C. excellent                      D. many

Question 49. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they               .

A. dissolve quickly

B. separate into different sizes

C. take some time to sink to the bottom

D. stick to the sides of the water container

Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because    .

A. less training is required to use the sieve

B. the sieve allows for a more exact measure

C. the sieve can measure clay

D. using the sieve takes less time

Lời giải chi tiết

1 2 3 4 5
D C A D A
6 7 8 9 10
C B A C A
11 12 13 14 15
B A C A C
16 17 18 19 20
C A D A D
21 22 23 24 25
C D B A D
26 27 28 29 30
B C D C D
31 32 33 34 35
A D A B B
36 37 38 39 40
A C B B B
41 42 43 44 45
D C D A C
46 47 48 49 50
A C B C B

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