Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
The world is losing languages at an alarming rate. Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately 6,000 human languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction. Some linguists estimate that a language dies every two weeks or so. At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could disappear.
Languages become extinct for many reasons. Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on colonies. Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests. Thus they prohibit education in all but the national language. Another reason for language death is the spread of more powerful languages. In the world today, several languages, including English, are so dominant in commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer speakers have trouble competing.
Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now become champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes. Two outstanding examples are the revival of Hebrew and Irish. Hebrew was considered a dead language, like Latin, but is now the national language of Israel. Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English when the government of Ireland began its rescue immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State in 1922. All students in public schools must now take some classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish government, approximately 37% of the population of Ireland now speaks Irish.
One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being conducted by three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment for the Humanities, and the National Museum of Natural History. Researchers funded by these agencies are recording interviews with the mostly elderly people who still speak the languages. Analyses of these interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and grammars of the languages. Eventually, linguists hope to establish language-training programs where younger people can learn the languages, carrying them on into the future.
The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages. They point out that when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held. Traditional healers in rural areas have given scientists important leads in finding new medicines; aspirin is an example of these. But one of the most common reasons given by these researchers is that studying languages gives us insight into the radically different way humans organize their world. David Lightfoot, an official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,” “south,” “east,” and “west.”
Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part. Bruce L. Cole, Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great potential loss, it is also a moment for enormous potential gain. In this modern age of computers and our growing technological capabilities, we can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented riches of linguistic and cultural information.”
Question 1: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Similarities between Engendered Species
B. Preserving Endangered Languages
C. Linguistic Globalization
D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them
Question 2: According to the passage, which language is a dead language?
A. Irish B. English
C. Hebrew D. Latin
Question 3: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that ______.
A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation.
B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared.
C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation.
D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages.
Question 4: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. bring in B. bring back
C. regain D. retain
Question 5:According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday?
A. Record interviews with elderly people
B. Get funding from the government
C. Teach endangered languages to young people
D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish
Question 6:The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. dying languages
B. traditional healers
C. important leads
D. new medicines
Question 7:David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to ______.
A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages
B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages
C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world
D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines
Question 8:How would you describe Bruce Cole’s opinion of the DEL project?
A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages.
B. He believes that it isn’t worth the time and energy required to save languages.
C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages.
D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
A. daunt B. astronaut
C. vaulting D. aunt
A. clear B. treasure
C. spread D. dread
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
A. leftover B. conical
C. sacrifice D. supportive
A. swallow B. confide
C. maintain D. install
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 13:Harry does not eat like a horse anymore.
A. Harry used to eat like a horse.
B. Harry used to eat a horse.
C. Harry does not like a horse.
D. Harry has never eaten too much.
Question 14:“How long have you been in this job?” She asked him.
A. She asked him how long he has been in that job.
B. She asked him how long has he been in that job.
C. She asked him how long he had been in that job.
D. She asked him how long had he been in that job.
Question 15:People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars.
A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.
B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area.
C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.
D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 16:Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
Question 17:William Clark was not granted the rank of captain. Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
A. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain because Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
B. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, thus Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
C. Although William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
D. As William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
We all want to live in a clean and green world and breathe pollution free air. For this kind of environment we desperately need a fossil fuel free world. Scientists are toiling hard to come up (18)______ alternative fuels which can replace conventional fuels. One such study was presented at the 237th National Meeting of the American Chemical Society. This study throws interesting light on the first economical, eco-friendly process to (19)______ algae oil into biodiesel fuel. The scientists are quite hopeful that one day America will become independent (20)______ fossil fuels. Ben Wen is the (21)______ researcher and vice president of United Environment and Energy LLC, Horseheads, N.Y. According to him, “This is the first economical way to produce biodiesel from algae oil. It costs much less than conventional processes because you would need a much smaller factory, there (22)______ no water disposal costs, and the process is considerably faster.”
A. to B. against
C. with D. for
A. adapt B. transform
C. modify D. alter
A. on B. from
C. with D. of
A. lead B. top
C. summit D. peak
A. were B. are
C. had D. have
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23:The movie tried something new, (A) combining ruthless (B) violence and (C) quick-witted humor and philosophy (D) reflection.
Question 24:Historically, (A) it was the 3rd Asian Games (B) in Japan that (C) tennis, volleyball, table tennis and hockey were (D) added.
Question 25:Though formally (A) close friends, they have now been estranged (B) from each other (C) due to some regrettable misunderstandings. (D)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 26:There has been little rain in this area for too long, ______?
A. has it B. has there
C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there
Question 27:John was deported on account of his expired visa. He ______ it renewed.
A. must have had
B. should have had
C. can have had
D. might have had
Question 28:Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their ______.
A. creative B. creativity
C. create D. creatively
Question 29:Businesses will not survive ______ they satisfy their customers.
A. or else B. in case
C. unless D. if
Question 30:The villagers are not sure how they are going to get ______ another hard and cold winter.
A. by B. on
C. round D. through
Question 31:When I was small, my parents were often away; my grandmother ______ take care of me.
A. will B. shall
C. would D. should
Question 32:______ humans, dolphins use a system of sounds and body language to communicate, but understanding their conversations is not easy for humans.
A. Alike B. Unlike
C. Dislike D. Like
Question 33:The trainers encourage the animals ______, but the elephants make their own songs; they don’t just copy their trainers or other people.
A. to play B. play
C. playing D. that play
Question 34:For those ______ in adventure and sport, there is a lot to do on Vanuatu’s islands in the South Pacific.
A. who interest B. interesting
C. interested D. which interests
Question 35:This investigation is not only one that is continuing and worldwide ______ we expect to continue for quite some time.
A. but one also that
B. but one that also
C. but also one that
D. but that also one
Question 36:Despite a lot of concerns, sending people into space seems certain; we ______ see lunar cities and maybe even new human cultures on other planets.
A. can B. will
C. must D. may
Question 37:She really treasures the ______ car that she inherits from her grandfather.
A. big old green antique
B. green old big antique
C. green big old antique
D. old big green antique
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 38:The restaurant entices more and more customers with its cozy interior and special daily events.
A. attract B. free
C. refuse D. convince
Question 39:My head teacher has grave doubts as to whether I would pass my university entrance examination. I myself feel so worried.
A. personal B. serious
C. private D. specific
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 40:My neighbors are really tight with money. They hate throwing away food, don’t eat at restaurant, and always try to find the best price.
A. to spend money too easily
B. to not like spending money
C. to not know the value of money
D. to save as much money as possible
Question 41:We were all in a good mood because the weather was good and we were going on holiday the next day.
A. relaxed and comfortable
B. at ease and refreshed
C. upset and disappointed
D. sad and depressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 42:Wendy and Mark are university students. They are going on a field trip. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mark: “Hi, Wendy. What do we have to bring for the trip?”
A. Not much, your notebook and color pencils.
B. We’ll start off very early, you know.
C. All the course books, of course.
D. Well, don’t make a fuss.
Question 43:Mike is a university student. He comes to visit his professor, Mr. Brown, during office hours. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “What should I do to prepare for the final test?”
Mr. Brown: “______”
A. Read the test questions carefully.
B. Go over all the review sections.
C. Come early on the test day.
D. Drink a little alcohol everyday.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Rome is the capital of Italy. This sprawling modern city has many ancient monuments. Rome’s history goes back more than 2,500 years. Because of its age, Rome is often called the Eternal City. Rome’s many art treasures and historic buildings make the city an important center of European culture.
In ancient times, Rome was the center of a mighty Roman empire. The empire lasted nearly 500 years, into the ad 400s. Roman armies conquered the lands that are now Italy, Greece, Great Britain, France, and Egypt. The Romans built many roads from Rome to distant parts of their empire. This network of roads led to a saying that “All roads lead to Rome.” The Roman Empire’s influence is still present. The Romans spread their language, Latin, throughout Europe. Latin is the basis for Italian, French, Spanish, and other European languages.
The ancient Romans were great builders. Several of their buildings still stand today. They are among Rome’s famous landmarks.The Pantheon is a temple dedicated to the many Roman gods of mythology. The Roman Colosseum is a four-story amphitheater. An amphitheater is like a football stadium. The Colosseum is where Roman citizens once watched gladiators fight to the death. The Roman Forum was the political center of ancient Rome. The senate building and law courts were there, along with shops and religious buildings.
Many artists painted in Rome. The most famous of them is Michelangelo. He lived 500 years ago. Thousands of people visit Rome each year to see his art. Visitors to the Vatican stare in wonder at the beautiful murals that Michelangelo painted on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel. The murals show scenes from the first book of the Bible, the Book of Genesis.
Vatican City is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church. The pope lives at the Vatican. He is the head of the Catholic Church. There are more than a billion Catholics worldwide, making Roman Catholicism the largest Christian religion. Vatican City is an independent country within Rome. It is the smallest country in the world.
Question 44:Rome is called the Eternal City because ______.
A. it is over thousands of years old
B. it is sprawling modern
C. it has many ancient monuments
D. its history goes too far away
Question 45:Rome is made an important center of European culture ______.
A. by the country of Italy
B. with its long history
C. by its art treasures and historic buildings
D. for its many ancient monuments
Question 46:The word “mighty” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. powerful B. great
C. strong D. wealthy
Question 47:The author mentions the Pantheon, the Roman Colosseum, and the Roman Forum as ______.
A. great builders
B. famous landmarks
C. gods of mythology
D. Roman citizens
Question 48:It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ______.
A. the Pantheon is a famous landmark building in modern Rome
B. Roman citizens watched gladiators fight to the death in the Colosseum
C. important political decisions were made in the Roman Forum
D. the Roman Colosseum is an amphitheater with four floors
Question 49:The word “murals” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. Bible books B. walls
C. paintings D. Bible stories
Question 50:According to the passage, what is NOT true about Vatican City?
A. It is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church.
B. It is the largest Christian religion area in the world.
C. It is an independent country within Rome.
D. It is where the head of the Catholic Church lives.
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