Tiếng Anh 12

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ 1 (ĐỀ THI HỌC KÌ 1) - TIẾNG ANH 12

Đề số 5 - Đề kiểm tra học kì 1 - Tiếng Anh 12

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Đáp án và lời giải chi tiết Đề kiểm tra học kì 1 - Đề số 5 - Tiếng Anh 12

Đề bài

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1: It was not only cold but it also snowed a few days ago.

A. Was it not only cold but it also snowed a few days ago.

B. Not only was it cold but it also snowed a few days ago.

C. It was not only cold but did it also snow a few days ago.

D. Not only it was cold but did it also snow a few days ago.

Question 2: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.

A. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.

B. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.

C. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.

D. The meeting lasted much longer than usual.

 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. washed                       B. needed

C. stopped                       D. linked

Question 4:

A. autumn                       B. summer

C. public                          D. struggle

Question 5:

A. succeed                      B. accept

C. account                      D. accident

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The Development of Refrigeration

Cold storage, or refrigeration, is keeping food at temperatures between 32 and 45 degrees F in order to delay the growth of microorganisms - bacteria, molds, and yeast - that cause food to spoil. Refrigeration produces few changes in food, so meats, fish, eggs, milk, fruits, and vegetables keep their original flavor, color, and nutrition. Before artificial refrigeration was invented, people stored perishable food with ice or snow to lengthen its storage time. Preserving food by keeping it in an ice-filled pit is a 4,000-year-old art. Cold storage areas were built in basements, cellars, or caves, lined with wood or straw, and packed with ice. The ice was transported from mountains, or harvested from local lakes or rivers, and delivered in large blocks to homes and businesses.

Artificial refrigeration is the process of removing heat from a substance, container, or enclosed area, to lower its temperature. The heat is moved from the inside of the container to the outside. A refrigerator uses the evaporation of a volatile liquid, or refrigerant, to absorb heat. In most types of refrigerators, the refrigerant is compressed, pumped through a pipe, and allowed to vaporize. As the liquid turns to vapor, it loses heat and gets colder because the molecules of vapor use energy to leave the liquid. The molecules left behind have less energy and so the liquid becomes colder. Thus, the air inside the refrigerator is chilled.

Scientists and inventors from around the world developed artificial refrigeration during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. William Cullen demonstrated artificial refrigeration in Scotland in 1748, when he let ethyl ether boil into a partial vacuum. In 1805, American inventor Oliver Evans designed the first refrigeration machine that used vapor instead of liquid. In 1842, physician John Gorrie used Evans's design to create an air-cooling apparatus to treat yellow-fever patients in a Florida hospital. Gorrie later left his medical practice and experimented with ice making, and in 1851 he was granted the first U.S. patent for mechanical refrigeration. In the same year, an Australian printer, James Harrison, built an ether refrigerator after noticing that when he cleaned his type with ether it became very cold as the ether evaporated. Five years later, Harrison introduced vapor-compression refrigeration to the brewing and meatpacking industries.

Brewing was the first industry in the United States to use mechanical refrigeration extensively, and in the 1870s, commercial refrigeration was primarily directed at breweries. German-born Adolphus Busch was the first to use artificial refrigeration at his brewery in St. Louis. Before refrigeration, brewers stored their beer in caves, and production was constrained by the amount of available cave space. Brewing was strictly a local business since beer was highly perishable and shipping it any distance would result in spoilage. Busch solved the storage problem with the commercial vapor- compression refrigerator. He solved the shipping problem with the newly invented refrigerated railcar, which was insulated with ice bunkers in each end. Air came in on the top, passed through the bunkers, and circulated through the car by gravity. In solving Busch's spoilage and storage problems, refrigeration also revolutionized an entire industry. By 1891, nearly every brewery was equipped with mechanical refrigerating machines.

The refrigerators of today rely on the same basic principle of cooling caused by the rapid evaporation and expansion of gases. Until 1929, refrigerators used toxic gases - ammonia, methyl chloride, and sulfur dioxide - as refrigerants. After those gases accidentally killed several people, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) became the standard refrigerant. However, they were found to be harmful to the earth's ozone layer, so refrigerators now use a refrigerant called HFC 134a, which is less harmful to the ozone.

Question 6. What is the main reason that people developed methods of refrigeration?

A. They needed to slow the natural processes that cause food to spoil.

B. They wanted to improve the flavor and nutritional value of food.

C. They needed a use for the ice that formed on lakes and rivers.

D. They wanted to expand the production of certain industries.

Question 7.  The word “perishablein paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                             .

A. uncooked

B. of animal origin

C. highly nutritious

D. capable of spoiling

Question 8. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about cold storage before the invention of artificial refrigeration?

A. It required a container made of metal or wood.

B. It was not a safe method of preserving meat.

C. It kept food cold for only about a week.                       

D. It was dependent on a source of ice or snow.

Question 9. Artificial refrigeration involves all of the following processes EXCEPT                       .

A. the pumping of water vapor through a pipe                   

B. the rapid expansion of certain gases

C. the evaporation of a volatile liquid                                 

D. the transfer of heat from one place to another

Question 10. According to the passage, who was the first person to use artificial refrigeration for a practical purpose?

A. John Gorrie

B. William Cullen

C. Oliver Evans

D. Adolphus Busch

Question 11. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to            .

A. printer                        B. type

C. refrigerator                 D. ether

Question 12. The word “constrainedin paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to        .

A. restricted                     B. spoiled

C. improved                     D. alternated

Question 13. According to the passage, the first refrigerated railcar used what material as a cooling agent?

A. ether                          B. ammonia 

C. CFCs                           D. ice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 14: Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways. This is due to individual life experience and personality.

A. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways, according to individual life experience and personality.

B. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways, owing to individual life experience and personality.

C. Vietnamese culture through individual life experience and personality is dynamic and expressed in various ways.

D. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various in individual life experience and personality.

Question 15: Wild dogs are found in different parts of the world. Wild dogs, domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes have the same ancestors.

A. Wild dogs whose ancestors are the same as domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes are found in different parts of the world.

B. Wild dogs are found in different parts of the world where they share ancestors with wild dogs, domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes.

C. Wild dogs, domestic dogs that are found in different parts of the world and also wolves, jackals and foxes have the same ancestors.

D. In different parts of the world, wild dogs and domestic dogs share ancestors with wolves, jackals and foxes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 16:

A. conservation               B. compulsory

C. optimistic                    D. independent

Question 17:

A. commercial                 B. regretful 

C. impolite                      D. successful

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 18: Anne: "Make yourself at home".

John : "            ."

A. Thanks! Same to you.

B. That's very kind of you. Thank you.

C. Not at all. Don't mention it.

D. Yes, Can I help you?

Question 19: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening.

Barbara:           .

A. Thanks!

B. Cheer!

C. Have a good day

D. You are welcome.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.

A. similar                                 B. different

C. fake                                    D. genuine

Question 21: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. restrain

B. stay unchanged

C. remain unstable

D. fluctuate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The economic expansion prompted by the Second World War triggered a spectacular population boom in the West. Of course, the region was no stranger to population booms. Throughout much of its history, western settlement had been characterized by spurts, rather than by a pattern of gradual and steady population growth, beginning with the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's. The decade after the First World War - the 1920's - witnessed another major surge of people pouring into the West, particularly into urban areas. But the economic depression of the 1930's brought this expansion to a halt; some of the more sparsely settled parts of the region actually lost population as migrants sought work in more heavily industrialized areas. By 1941 when the United States entered the Second World War and began to mobilize, new job opportunities were created in the western part of the nation.

If the expansion of industries, such as shipbuilding and aircraft manufacturing, was most striking on the pacific coast, it also affected interior cities like Denver, Phoenix, and Salt Lake City. Equally dramatic were the effects of the establishment of aluminum plants in Oregon and Washington and the burgeoning steel industry in Utah and California. The flow of people into these areas provided an enormous impetus to the expansion of the service industries - banks, health care services and schools. Although strained to the limit by the influx of newcomers, western communities welcomed the vast reservoir of new job opportunities. At the same time, the unprecedented expansion of government installations in the West, such as military bases, created thousands of new civilian openings. As land had served as a magnet for western migrants in the late nineteenth century, so wartime mobilization set in motion another major expansion of population. Indeed, it could be said that the entire western United States became a giant boomtown during the Second World War. This was especially true of California. Of the more than eight million people who moved into the West in the decade after 1940, almost one-half went to the Pacific coast. In fact, between 1940 and 1950, California's population surged by more than three million people.

Question 22. What is the main point of the passage?

A. Industrial growth during the 1940's attracted large numbers of people to the West.

B. The military drew people away from civilian jobs during the 1940's.

C. California dominated the economic growth of the West during the Second World War.

D. The West experienced gradual and steady economic growth from 1900 to 1940.

Question 23. The word "triggered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                        .

A. generated

B. was connected to

C. interfered with

D. illuminated

Question 24. Why does the author mention the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860'sin the first paragraph?

A. As causes of gradual population growth.

B. As contrasts to late patterns of population growth.

C. As examples of western population booms. 

D. As illustrations of a market economy.

Question 25. According to the passage, the depression of the 1930's caused which of the following?

A. A creation of more job opportunities.

B. A growth in immigration from abroad.

C. A lack of population growth in the West.

D. The building of new suburbs

Question 26. The word itin paragraph 2 refers to           .

A. expansion

B. denver

C. manufacturing

D. the Pacific coast

Question 27. The passage suggests that industrialization in the West led to all of the following EXCEPT             .

A. An increase in school construction

B. A reduction in the price of land

C. Improved access to doctors

D. An increase in the number of banks

Question 28. It can be inferred from the passage that the principal cause of California’s population surge between 1940 and 1950 was           .

A. the increased availability of land

B. people’s desire to live in a warm, coastal climate

C. the industrial mobilization necessitated by the Second World War.

D. overcrowding in urban areas in other regions of the United States

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 29: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.

A. outcome                      B. continuation 

C. beginning                     D. expansion

Question 30: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order.

A. restricted                       B. as well as

C. unless                           D. instead of

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of test we take. They find out how much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, it isn't a (31)       that some

people who are very academically successful don't have any common sense?

Intelligence is the speed (32)                             which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing (33)              computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

A person's IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are (34)    by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976, it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, largely in the US.

People taking the tests are judged in (35)                        to an average score of 100, and those who score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2 percent of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if allowed enough time. But that's the problem, the whole point of the test is that they're against the clock.

Question 31.

A. case                          B. fact

C. circumstance             D. truth

Question 32.

A. on                             B. to 

C. in                              D. at

Question 33.

A. advanced                 B. forward

C. ahead                       D. upper

Question 34.

A. appointed                B. commanded

C. run                           D. steered

Question 35.

A. concerned               B. relation

C. regard                      D. association

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 36. (A) In the end of the story, Cinderella and (B) the prince (C) get married and live (D) happily together.

Question 37. Rattan, (A) a close relative of bamboo, (B) is often used (C) to make tables, chairs, and (D) other furnitures.

Question 38. The number of (A) homeless people in Nepal (B) have increased sharply (C) due to the recent (D) severe earthquake.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to complete each of the following questions.

Question 39. In many families, the woman now is the principal          .

A. breadbasket

B. bread earner

C. winner

D. breadwinner

Question 40. By the time you receive this letter, I            for the USA.

A. am leaving                         B. will leave 

C. will have left                       D. have left

Question 41. Last Saturday was               that we took a drive in the country.

A. so beautiful day

B. such a beautiful day          

C. so a beautiful day

D. such beautiful day

Question 42. He has not been offered the job because he cannot meet the               of the company.

A. requirements                 B. applicant

C. information                    D. education

Question 43. The authorities are determined to take tougher             to reduce crime.

A. measures                       B. situations

C. interests                         D. requirements

Question 44. If more chemicals are released into the water, plants and animals              .

A. would be died                B. would die

C. will be killed                   D. will killed

Question 45. The team were eager to make           the loss of the previous match.

A. away with                      B. off with

C. up for                            D. up with

Question 46. Peter tried his best and passed the driving test at the first                    .

A. try                                 B. attempt

C. doing                            D. aim

Question 47.               parents of Paul Thomas claimed that he was at                      home at the time of     robbery.

A. Ø – Ø – the

B. The – the – the

C. Ø – Ø - a

D. The – Ø - the

Question 48.                       I had learnt English when I was at high school.

A. If only                          B. Even if

C. Unless                         D. If

Question 49. I                   a terrible accident while I         on the beach.

A. saw / was walking

B. have seen / were walking

C. see / am walking

D. was seeing / walked

Question 50.                   irritating they are, you shouldn't lose your temper with your children.

A. Because of                      B. No matter

C. Despite                           D. However

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 B Question 26 A
Question 2 C Question 27 B
Question 3 B Question 28 C
Question 4 A Question 29 C
Question 5 C Question 30 D
Question 6 A  Question 31 B
Question 7 D  Question 32 D
Question 8 D  Question 33 A
Question 9 A  Question 34 C
Question 10 A  Question 35 B
Question 11 B  Question 36 A
Question 12 A  Question 37 D
Question 13 D  Question 38 B
Question 14 B  Question 39 D
Question 15 A  Question 40 C
Question 16 B Question 41 B
Question 17 C Question 42 A
Question 18 B Question 43 A
Question 19 D Question 44 C
Question 20 B Question 45 C
Question 21 B Question 46 B
Question 22 A Question 47 D
Question 23 A Question 48 A
Question 24 C Question 49 A
Question 25 C Question 50 D

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