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Đề số 19 - Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia môn Tiếng Anh

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Đáp án và lời giải chi tiết Đề số 19 - Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia môn Tiếng Anh

Đề bài

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (1)______ . Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (2)_______ if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (3)______  and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (4)______  wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (5)______, unless we can solve this problem.

Question 1.

A. threat                      B. problem

C. danger                    D. vanishing

Question 2.

A. disappeared                B. vanished

C. extinct                         D. empty

Question 3.

A. for life                     B. alive

C. lively                      D. for living

Question 4.

A. spoil                        B. wound

C. wrong                     D. harm

Question 5.

A. left                          B. over

C. staying                    D. survive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6. Important features of dehydrated foods are their lightness in weight and their compactness.

A. organic                   B. dried

C. frozen                     D. healthy

Question 7. Many people criticized the ostentatious lifestyle of some high-ranked officials.

A. debauched              B. immoral

C. showy                     D. extravagant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8. ‘What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication,’ said the government official to the reporter.

A. already official      

B. beside the point

C. not popular

D. not recorded

Question 9. These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. publicly said 

B. openly criticized 

C. publicly supported

D. strongly condemned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 10. Minh: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.” - Thomas: “_______.”

A. Good Heavens!

B. Never mind. Better job next time!

C. That’s brilliant enough.

D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.

Question 11. Susan: “_______.” - Peter: “No, thanks. I’m not hungry.”

A. Do you like eating cookies? 

B. Would you like some cookies?

C. Do you have any cookies?  

D. Are cookies your favorite snacks?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 12.

A. household                B. concern

C. garbage                   D. conflict

Question 13.

A. confidence               B. maximum 

C. applicant                  D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 14.

A. area                        B. arrange 

C. arrive                      D. arise

Question 15.

A. reduced                  B. caused 

C. damaged                D. preserved

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and "life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.

Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.

In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.

Question 16. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Risk factors in heart attacks

B. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks

C. Cardiology in the 1980s 

D. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

Question 17. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. involve                   B. affect

C. cause                     D. encounter

Question 18. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?

A. The link between heart attacks and marriage 

B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks

C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks

D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks

Question 19. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by

A. aware of                 B. affected by

C. accustomed to        D. prone to

Question 20. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart attacks?

A. Decreased blood flow to the heart

B. Increased blood pressure

C. Lower heart rate  

D. Increase in hormones

Question 21. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?

A. Having a birthday

B. Getting married

C. Eating fatty foods

D. Being under stress

Question 22. Which of the following does the passage infer?

A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.

D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of ther following questions.

Question 23. If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city ______ so slippery now.

A. would not be         

B. must not be

C. could not have been  

D. would not have been

Question 24. My dog as well as my cats ______ twice a day.

A. eat                                 B. eats

C. have eaten                    D. has eaten

Question 25. The doctor advised ______ late.

A. me not staying up

B. me not stay up

C. me not to stay up

D. not to stay up

Question 26. It seems that you are right, ______?

A. doesn’t it                 B. do you

C. aren’t you                D. are you

Question 27. You ______ the locksmith to open the door for you last night before you tried to open it yourself.

A. have had to call

B. ought to have called

C. had better call

D. must call

Question 28. Valentine’s Day, ______ from Roman, is now celebrated all over the world.

A. originate                 B. originating

C. to originate              D. originated

Question 29. Until the situation has settled down, it is _____ to travel to that country.

A. well-advised           B. inadvisable

C. advisable                D. ill-advised

Question 30. The ______ cheered when the final goal was scored in the match today.

A. spectators                B. audience

C. onlookers                 D. viewers

Question 31. The purpose of the survey was to ______ the inspector with local conditions.

A. notify                       B. instruct

C. acquaint                  D. inform

Question 32. If oil supplies run out in 2050 then we need to find ______ energy sources soon.

A. alternate                   B. alternating

C. alternative                D. altering

Question 33. William was 19 years old when he was _____ for war.

A. called up                  B. made up

C. put up                      D. brought up

Question 34. I can’t give you the answer on the _____; I’ll have to think about it for a few days.

A. place                         B. minute 

C. scene                        D. spot

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 35. She received the exam results. She immediately phoned her mom.

A. She immediately phoned her mom that she would receive the exam results.

B. No sooner had she received the exam results than she phoned her mom.

C. No sooner had she phoned her mom than she received the exam results.

D. She received the exam results immediately after she phoned her mom.

Question 36. She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her.

A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.

B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project.

D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs  correction in each of the following questions.

Question 37. Our Spanish teacher would prefer us (A) spending (B) more time in the (C) laboratory practicing (D) our pronunciation.

Question 38. When (A) eggs of some species (B) of insects hatch, the newly bom insects look (C) almost like its (D) adult counterparts.

Questions 39. For thousands of years, people have used (A) some kind (B) of refrigeration cooling (C) beverages and preserve edibles.(D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 40. People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil.

A. The Samba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.

B. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil.

C. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil.

D. In Brazil, the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances.

Question 41. I find myself at a loss to understand Harold’s behavior.

A. I lost contact with Harold, so I couldn’t understand his behavior.

B. I have to lose a lot to understand Harold’s behavior.

C. I understood Harold’s behavior completely.

D. I find Harold's behavior quite incomprehensible.

Question 42. A child is influenced as much by his schooling as by his parents.

A. Schooling doesn’t influence a child as much as his parents do.

B. A child’s parents have greater influence on him than his schooling.

C. A child can influence his parents as much as his schooling.

D. A child's schooling influences him as much as his parents do.

Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.

Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.

Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.

Question 43. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.

B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.

C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.

D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.

Question 44. The word “sunken” is closest in meaning to which of the following words?

A. broken                    B. underwater

C. ancient                    D. hollow

Question 45. Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?

A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.

B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonars

C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.

D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.

Question 46. The author uses the word “services” to refer to which of the following?

A. cups                        B. sets 

C. containers               D. decorations

Question 47. All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT

A. wine bottles

B. silver tea services

C. American Gold Eagle coins

D. crystal dinnerware

Question 48. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to         

A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers

B. be a diver

C. put treasures in a museum

D. do archaeological research

Question 49. The word “scoured” is most similar to which of the following?

A. scraped away 

B. scratched over       

C. scrambled around

D. searched through

Question 50. The second and third paragraphs are an example of    

A. chronological order

B. explanation

C. specific to general

D. definition

Lời giải chi tiết

1 2 3 4 5
C C B D A
6 7 8 9 10
B C A B B
11 12 13 14 15
B B D A A
16 17 18 19 20
A C B D C
21 22 23 24 25
B D A B C
26 27 28 29 30
C B D B A
31 32 33 34 35
C C A D B
36 37 38 39 40
C B D C A
41 42 43 44 45
A D D B C
46 47 48 49 50
A C A D B

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